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Probability should always be 50%

By on Aug 4, 2009 | 12 comments

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Let me ask you a simple question –

If I throw a dice on a table, what is the probability that the upper face of the dice will have 1?

Simple: You’ll either get one, or you won’t.

That means there are only two possibilities – either something happens or it does not.

That’s why, probability should always be 50%.

Thank you,

The Big K


  1. Vidyut

    August 4, 2009

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    right biggie! Only that we will have to call it “the Big k’s probability”. 😀

  2. The Big K

    August 4, 2009

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    Why not. I’d definitely like to see my name in Math text books. All CAT & GRE aspirants will be happy and bless me for making their life easier. The text books will say “One fine night, Big K changed the world through a simple post on his blog by busting the years of mathematical beliefs and difficult-to-mug formulae.

    PS: Here’s another proof. Either you (the reader) will comment on this post, or not. 50% again! :mrgreen:

  3. Amit Sharma

    August 4, 2009

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    Classical probability is number of favourable outcomes / number of total outcomes.

    A face turning up is a configuration of the dice, which is unique and identifiable. Similarly the dice has five other configurations, which even though unfavourable for us, are still unique and identifiable by themselves. Thus there are total six possible outcomes, which means the probability is 1/6.

  4. turn2me

    August 4, 2009

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    There is a big difference in something happening and not happening and a dice showing 1 at the top face…

    There are only 2 chances for the so called SOMETHING – happen/doesn’t happen

    But there are 6 chances for a dice….

    Okay one quick question for all of you

    I keep a knight at any position on a chess board (remember the 8×8 chess board). What is the probability of it covering all the squares (a chess board has 64 squares). No. of moves doesn’t matter, you can take as many moves as you want…. But tell me what would be the probability..

    Big K you started the wrong thread, this is a damm interesting topic..

  5. Gawran Pundit

    August 5, 2009

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    Alright, here is my theory on a different topic..

    Consider a circle.A circumference of a circle is considered to be made up of infinite points…So lets just consider one random point on the circumference of the circle as a beginning point(say, A). Now, lets traverse along the circumference of circle in either Clockwise/Anti-Clockwise direction from the beginning point A. As we travel through the infinite points along the circle the no. of points travelled come close to(tend to) infinity and therefore, we also tend to complete the full journey along the circumference.Now, if we consider the beginning point A=0, the point immediately after A (i.e. A + infinitesimally small distance) as 1, and so on, then the whole number system can be represented along the circumference of the circle.So, as we go on travelling along the circumference, we go on increasing the numbers. When we (hypothetically) reach the end of the circumeference,(i.e. the point which is A – infinitesimally small distance), we are tending to infinity but still not at inifinity. As we go further to reach infinity, we again arrive at the beginning point which is A. But A=0. So, my friends, Infinity is nothing but zero.And zero is nothing. Also, nothing is nothing. :d

    So, Infinity = zero 😀

    I had written this theory in a community on Orkut 3 years ago which got wide criticism (and some small appreciation) from many members.Unfortunately i lost it along with the full discussion of about 3 months as i deleted my old account on Orkut.Hope you all didnt lose your mind reading this. :).


    **** What i mean to imply is, Infinity is same as zero and having same properties like zero, Its just the other end of the number system denoted by a number having strange similarities with zero. Maybe, we can call it zero dash? (0′)

  6. smita

    August 7, 2009

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    Although I dont want to be a spoilsport here biggie, I think you should get your maths straight 😛

  7. Amit Sharma

    August 8, 2009

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    It’s not IIM that spoiled me in this case.

    It’s the 5 years of mathematics honours and topping statistics and probability in my batch that did 🙂

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